Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
14.06.2025 00:06
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Is the Trump-Zelenskyy meeting a preview of what the US is going to do to Taiwan?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What defines the k'vanna of the Book of בראשית?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What makes you feel guilty the most?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.